1. DML is provided for
A) Description of logical structure of database
B) Addition of new structure in the database system.
C) Manipulation & processing of database
D) Definition of physical structure of database system

2.’AS’ clause is used in SQL for
A) Selection operation
B) Rename Operation
C) Join operation
D) Projection Operation

3. Count function in SQL returns the number of
A) values
B) distinct values
C) groups
D) columns

4. The statement in SQL which allows to change the definition of a table is
A) Alter
B) Update
C) Create
D) Select

5. Which of the following is correct.
A) A SQL query automatically eliminates duplicates
B) SQL permits attribute names to be repeated in the same relation
C) A SQL query will not work if there are no indexes on the relations
D) None of the above

6. Which of the following operation is used if we are interested in only certain columns of a table?
A) PROJECTION
B) SELECTION
C) UNION
D) JOIN

7. Which of the following is a legal expression in SQL?
A) SELECT NULL FROM EMPLOYEE;
B) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE;
C) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE SALARY=NULL;
D) None of the above

8. Which of the following is a valid SQL type?
A) CHARACTER
B) NUMERIC
C) FLOAT
D) All of the above

9. Which command is used to select distinct subject (SUB) from the table (BOOK)?
A) SELECT ALL FROM BOOK
B) SELECT DISTINCT SUB FROM BOOK
C) SELECT SUB FROM BOOK
D) All of the above

10. In SQL, which of the following is not a data definition language commands?
A) RENAME
B) REVOKE
C) GRANT
D) UPDATE

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1. What is the way a particular application views the data from the database that the application uses?

A. module

B. relational model

C. schema

D. subschema

2. DFD stands for

A. Data Flow Document

B. Data File Diagram

C. Data Flow Diagram

D. Non of the above

3. Which of the following is used to define the overall design of the database?

A. schema

B. application program

C. data definition language

D. code

4. Which of the following is a way a particular application views the data from the database that the application uses?

A. module

B. relational model

C. schema

D. subschema

5. In SQL, which command is used to issue multiple CREATE TABLE, CREATE VIEW, and GRANT statements in a single transaction?

A. CREATE PACKAGE

B. CREATE SCHEMA

C. CREATE CLUSTER

D. All of the above

6. What is a special type of integrity constraint that relates two relations & maintains consistency across the relations?

A. Entity Integrity Constraints

B. Referential Integrity Constraints

C. Domain Integrity Constraints

D. Domain Constraints

7. Which normal form is considered adequate for relational database design?

A. Second Normal Form

B. Third Normal Form

C. Fourth Normal Form

D. BCNF

8. Which of the following is TRUE for the system variable "date"?

A. Can be assigned to a global variable.

B. Can be assigned to any field only during design time.

C. Can be assigned to any variable or field during run time.

D. Can be assigned to a local variable.

9. Which of the following contains information that defines valid values that are stored in a column or data type?

A. View

B. Rule

C. Index

D. Default

10. Which of the following has to be dealt with by the integrity subsystem is to ensure that only valid values can be assigned to each data item?

A. Data Security

B. Domain access

C. Data Control

D. Domain Integrity

11. Which of the following are the properties of entities?

A. Groups

B. Table

C. Attributes

D. Switchboards

12. What is a logical schema?

A. It is the entire database

B. It is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts.

C. It Describes how data is actually stored on disk.

D. All of the above

13. Which of the following is the complex search criteria in the where clause?

A. Substring

B. Drop Table

C. Predict

D. Predicate

14. Which of the following entity does not have a distinguishing attribute if its own and most are dependent entities?

A. Weak entity

B. Strong entity

C. Non-attributes entity

D. Dependent entity

15. Which of the following is a utility to capture a continuous record of server activity and provide auditing capability?

A. SQL Server Profile

B. SQL server service manager

C. SQL server setup

D. SQL server wizard

16. Which command can be used to change a column value in a table?

A. create

B. insert

C. alter

D. update

17. What is the collection of information stored in a database at a particular moment?

A. schema

B. instance of the database

C. data domain

D. independence

18. What is the number of tuples in a relation?

A. Degree

B. Cardinality

C. Rows

D. Columns

19. Which of the following is used to determine whether a table contains duplicate rows?

A. Unique predicate

B. Like Predicate

C. Null predicate

D. In predicate

20. Which database is used as a template for all databases created?

A. Master

B. Model

C. Tempdb

D. None of the above

21. Which of the following components is NOT included in the database environment?

A. users

B. separate files

C. database

D. database administrator

22. Which of the following files are used during the operation of the DBMS?

A. Query languages and utilities

B. DML and query language

C. Data dictionary and transaction log

D. Data dictionary and query language

23. A relational database developer refers to a record as

A. a criteria

B. a relation

C. a tuple

D. an attribute

24. Which of the following commands can be used to modify a column in a table?

A. alter

B. update

C. set

D. create

25. The key to represent the relationship between tables is called

A. primary key

B. secondary key

C. foreign key

D. none of the above

26. Data independence means

A. data is defined separately and not included in programs.

B. programs are not dependent on the physical attributes of data

C. programs are not dependent on the logical attributes of data

D. both B and C

27. Which of the following databases has only a strict parent-child relationship?

A. hierarchical databases.

B. network databases

C. object-oriented databases

D. relational databases

28. Which of the following is an outstanding functionality of SQL that supports automatic selection of the target data?

A. programming

B. functioning

C. navigation

D. notification

29. Which of the following is the preferred method for enforcing data integrity?

A. Constraints

B. Stored Procedure

C. Triggers

D. Cursors

30. Which of the following are the ways in which entities can participate in a relationship?

A. Passive and active

B. Total and partial

C. Simple and Complex

D. All of the above

31. The database schema is written in which of the following languages?

A. High-Level Language

B. Data Manipulation Language

C. Data Definition Language

D. Data Control Language

32. Grant and revoke are which of the following statements?

A. Data Definition Language

B. Transaction Control Language

C. Data Control Language

D. Data Manipulation Language

33. Which of the following provides an option for entering SQL queries as execution time, rather than at the development stage?

A. PL/SQL

B. SQL*Plus

C. SQL

D. Dynamic SQL

34. Which database level is closest to the users?

A. External

B. Internal

C. Physical

D. Conceptual

35. A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a

A. Hierarchical schema

B. Network schema

C. Relational Schema

D. All of the above

36. Which clause is an additional filter that is applied to the result?

A. Select

B. Group-by

C. Having

D. Order by

37. Which of the following is not a logical database structure?

A. Chain

B. Network

C. Tree

D. Relational

38. Data items grouped together for storage purposes is called a

A. record

B. title

C. list

D. string

39. What represents the number of entities to which another entity can be associated?

A. mapping cardinality

B. table

C. schema

D. information

40. DCL stands for

A. Data Control Language

B. Data Console Language

C. Data Console Level

D. Data Control Level

41. In a relational model, relations are also called

A. Tuples

B. Attributes

C. Tables

D. Rows

42. Which key is a minimal superkey that can also refer to a surrogate key?

A. Initial Key

B. Primary Key

C. Candidate Key

D. External Key

43. Which of the following clauses specifies a search condition for a group or an aggregate?

A. GROUP BY Clause

B. HAVING Clause

C. FROM Clause

D. WHERE Clause

44. Which of the following is a preferred method for enforcing data integrity?

A. Using constraints

B. Using stored procedure

C. Using triggers

D. Using cursors

45. Which is a proper subset designed to support views belonging to different classes of users in order to hide or protect information?

A. Schema

B. Sub-schema

C. Non-schema

D. Non-sub schema

46. Which of the following is not a binary operator in relational algebra?

A. Inner-Join

B. Outer-Join

C. Full Join

D. External Join

47. Which of the following is critical in formulating database design?

A. row column order

B. number of tables

C. functional dependency

D. normalizing

48. Which command is used for entering the specific database?

A. use database

B. database name use

C. Both A &B

D. None of them

49. Which of the following SQL commands can be used to modify existing data in a database table?

A. MODIFY

B. UPDATE

C. CHANGE

D. NEW

50. What is a full form of SQL?

A. Standard query language

B. Sequential query language

C. Structured query language

D. Server-side query language

51. Which of the following is a condition specified on a database schema and restricts the data that can be stored in an instance of the database?

A. Key Constraint

B. Check Constraint

C. Foreign key constraint

D. integrity constraint

52. What operator tests the column for the absence of data?

A. IS NULL operator

B. ASSIGNMENT operator

C. LIKE operator

D. NOT operator

53. In an ER model, which is described in the database by storing its data.

A. Entity

B. Attribute

C. Relationship

D. Notation

54. Which character function can be used to return a specified portion of a character string?

A. INSTR

B. SUBSTRING

C. SUBSTR

D. POS

55. Which of the following keys is used to eliminate duplicate rows?

A. NODUPLICATE

B. ELIMINATE

C. DISTINCT

D. None of these

56. What is a set of possible data values?

A. attribute

B. degree

C. tuple

D. domain

57. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields called

A. Relations

B. Domains

C. Queries

D. All of the above

58. Which of the following databases contains data assisting day-to-day activities of the organization?

A. Control database

B. Operational database

C. Strategic database

D. Sequential database

59. Which data type can store unstructured data?

A. RAW

B. CHAR

C. NUMERIC

D. VARCHAR

60. Which of the following is/are the DDL statements?

A. Create

B. Drop

C. Alter

D. All of the above

61. If a table has more than one set of attributes that could be chosen as the key, it is called

A. foreign key

B. integrity key

C. relationship

D. candidate key

62. Which keyword is used to find the number of values in a column?

A. TOTAL

B. COUNT

C. ADD

D. SUM

63. What are the different events in Triggers?

A. Define, Create

B. Drop, Comment

C. Insert, Update, Delete

D. Select, Commit

64. Who proposed the process of normalization in DBMS at first?

A. Edgar Willium

B. Edgar Frank Codd

C. Edward Stephen

D. Edward Codd

65. Which one of the following statements is false?

A. The data dictionary is normally maintained by the database administrator

B. Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary.

C. The data dictionary contains the name and description of each data element.

D. A data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administrator.

66. Which of the following defines rules regarding the values allowed in columns and is the standard mechanism for enforcing database integrity?

A. Column

B. Constraint

C. Index

D. Trigger

67. What will be created if a primary key is combined with a foreign key?

A. Parent-child relationship between the tables that connect them

B. Many-to-many relationship between the tables that connect them

C. Network model between the tables that connect them

D. None of the above

68. Which candidate key allows you to uniquely identify each row?

A. Alternate Key

B. Primary Key

C. Foreign Key

D. None of the above

69. Which table store information about the database or about the system?

A. SQL

B. Nested

C. System

D. None of these

70. Which of the following enables users to create and maintain a database?

A. Keys

B. Translators

C. Program

D. Language Activity

71. Which of the following clauses is used to pass on granted privileges to other users?

A. create option

B. grant option

C. update option

D. select option

72. What is the view of total database content?

A. Conceptual view

B. Internal view

C. External view

D. Physical view

73. Which of the following are used during the operation of the DBMS?

A. Query languages and utilities

B. DML and query language

C. Data dictionary and transaction log

D. Data dictionary and query language

74. What is the full form of HSAM?

A. Hierarchical Sequential Access Method

B. Hierarchic Standard Access Method

C. Hierarchic Sequential and Method

D. Hierarchic Standard and Method

75. DBMS helps to achieve

A. Data independence

B. Centralized control of data

C. Neither A nor B

D. Both A and B

76. What is an advantage of the database management approach?

A. data is dependent on programs

B. data redundancy increases

C. data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs

D. none of the above

77. What is the full form of DDL in Database Management System?

A. Dynamic Data Language

B. Detailed Data Language

C. Data Definition Language

D. Data Derivation Language

78. Which contains information about a file needed by system programs for accessing file records?

A. File blocks

B. File operators

C. File headers

D. None of these

79. What is the process of organizing data into related tables?

A. Normalization

B. Generalization

C. Specialization

D. None of the above

80. Which statement is executed automatically by the system?

A. trigger

B. assertion

C. durability

D. integrity constraint

81. What is a set of columns that identifies every row in a table?

A. composite key

B. candidate key

C. foreign key

D. super key

82. In the relational modes, cardinality is also called

A. Number of tuples

B. Number of attributes

C. Number of tables

D. Number of constraints

83. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a relational database model?

A. Table

B. Tree-like structure

C. Complex logical relationship

D. Records

84. A table can have only one

A. Secondary key

B. Alternate key

C. Unique key

D. Primary key

85. What is the feature of the relational model?

A. There is no need for primary key data

B. There is much more data independence than in some other database models

C. There are explicit relationships among records.

D. There are tables with many dimensions

86. In SQL, the CREATE TABLESPACE is used

A. To create a place in the database for the storage of scheme objects, rollback segments, and naming the data files

B. To create a database trigger.

C. To add/rename data files, to change storage

D. All of the above

87. What language requires a user to specify the data to be retrieved without specifying exactly how to get it?

A. Procedural DML

B. Non-Procedural DML

C. Procedural DDL

D. Non-Procedural DDL

88. What defines the structure of a relation that consists of a fixed set of attribute-domain pairs?

A. Instance

B. Schema

C. Program

D. Super Key

89. Which of the following operators is basically a join followed by a project on the attributes of the first relation?

A. Join

B. Semi-Join

C. Full Join

D. Inner Join

90. In a snapshot, which clause tells Oracle how long to wait between refreshes?

A. Complete

B. Force

C. Next

D. Refresh

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What is the sum of 7 and 5?

 

Answers:

1. DML is provided for
C) Manipulation & processing of database
2.’AS’ clause is used in SQL for
B) Rename Operation
3. Count function in SQL returns the number of
A) values
4. The statement in SQL which allows to change the definition of a table is
A) Alter
5. Which of the following is correct.
D) None of the above

6. Which of the following operation is used if we are interested in only certain columns of a table?
A) PROJECTION
7. Which of the following is a legal expression in SQL?
B) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE;
8. Which of the following is a valid SQL type?
D) All of the above
9. Which command is used to select distinct subject (SUB) from the table (BOOK)?
B) SELECT DISTINCT SUB FROM BOOK
10. In SQL, which of the following is not a data definition language commands?
D) UPDATE

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